I am reading an article:
In this article, authors mention and I quote 'pathogenic variants with allele frequencies greater than 0.01% were well characterized in publications and included many founder mutations.'
I want to make if I understand allele frequency correct. Does allele frequency greater than 0.01% means variants for whom the alternative allele count is greater than 1 so that 0.01 * 100 and if we have an allele frequency of 0.1% then that refers to alternative allele count as 10. Is this interpretation correct? Insights will be appreciated.