I notice that regularly, when authors are describing the relationship between a GWAS peak and a trait. Why does the SNP of interest have to be in a peak? Would a SNP that showed a significant association with a trait, but was not in a peak, be viewed as a spurious result? Thanks
Question: Why does a SNP have to be in a peak to be a legit GWAS result.
4.8 years ago by
Tom • 30
Tom • 30 wrote:
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