Analysing methylation from a sequencing experiment, we seem to be having some bimodal distributed values.
The question I was posed (which I'm still not so sure whether makes sense or not) is "Are you sure this is bimodal?". Needless to say, the plot doesn't show a clear "yes" or "no" answer. I.e. it's neither two well defined peaks nor one single peak, but something in between. So the questions are:
1- Is there a way to assign a p-value (or any metric) on how bimodal a distribution is?
2- Does it even make sense to ask this question? (Why or why not?).
Apologies in advanced if the question is too off topic.