This article seems to have an interesting approach; if I understand it correctly, they first map their human reads to the human genome, and then take the unmapped reads to find out whether they map to virus databases. If they do, then they seem to suggest that one could theorize that the virus could be implicated in the pathogenesis of the disease studied. Is this kind of conclusion warranted from such a finding?
Question: RNA-Seq: can one implicate viruses if unmapped reads map to virus sequences?
6.2 years ago by
jobinv • 1.1k
jobinv • 1.1k wrote:
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