Question: BETA(direction of effect) sign flipping based on the coded allele - when doing meta analysis of different studies - explain?
0
gravatar for iphoenix2100
4.7 years ago by
iphoenix210040
European Union
iphoenix210040 wrote:

Hi all,

 

 

So I am doing this new analysis (meta) from different studies. In which I was asked

- to swap the coded and non-coded alleles

- and the direction/sign of the beta flipped

to make both consistent across studies.

I am not able to understand this part or the reason why it is being done.  can someone explain

 

Eg. Study 1:

SNP        

Coded allele

        Non coded allele

        Beta

rs1

      A

                    T

       -0.5465

Study 2

SNP

          Coded allele

Non coded allele

        Beta

rs1  

               A                  

          T

        0.0345

 

 

snp meta gwas • 3.6k views
ADD COMMENTlink modified 4.7 years ago by David W4.7k • written 4.7 years ago by iphoenix210040
0
gravatar for David W
4.7 years ago by
David W4.7k
New Zealand
David W4.7k wrote:

It sounds like whoever asked you to do this just wants you to make sure all the studies you are using in your meta-analysis coded in the same way. So, in your example, if one study set "T" to the coded allele, you''d flip the sign of the effect-size so the result can be used to calculate the odds-ratio for the T (and not A) allele?

Or is there something I'm missing?

ADD COMMENTlink written 4.7 years ago by David W4.7k
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