Entering edit mode

6.3 years ago

bbio
▴
90

Is the r^2 between two SNPs (the measure of linkage disequilibrium between two variants) the same as the squared Pearson correlation between the two variants (encoded as 0/1/2)? In other words, to calculate the r^2 can I just take the two vectors of 0/1/2s, calculate the Pearson correlation and square the result?

Some sources seem to suggest that it is (and it would make a lot of sense to me) but I am having trouble finding a clear answer to this.